If Paul wanted to say that the age to come was being realized now through the Spirit, he would have—clearly, explicitly, and repetitively.

If Paul’s fundamental gospel revolved around the present realization of Jewish eschatology, then why do we not find in his letters long monologues about this idea, as in modern writings? Why the dissonance of language between the two? It is not as though Paul lacked the words to say such things. On a number of occasions he explicitly condemns the realization of Jewish eschatological realities (cf. 1 Cor. 15:12; 2 Thess. 2:2; 1 Tim. 6:20; 2 Tim. 2:18). In those condemnations, why did he not make qualifying statements concerning the  realized eschatology of the apostles versus the “over-realized” eschatology of his opponents (as modern scholars do so consistently)? Paul had the Greek words at his disposal to communicate “partial” fulfillment, but he never used them in relation to Jewish eschatology. - John P. Harrigan